3:1-8 The advantage of being a Jew: God's faithfulness
What advantage, then, is there
in being a Jew, or what value is there in circumcision? Much in every
way! First of all, they have been entrusted with the very words of
God. What if some did not have faith? Will their lack of faith
nullify God’s faithfulness? Not at all! Let God be true, and
every man a liar. As it is written: “So that you may be proved
right when you speak and prevail when you judge.” But if our
unrighteousness brings out God’s righteousness more clearly,
what shall we say? That God is unjust in bringing his wrath on us? (I
am using a human argument.) Certainly not! If that were so, how could
God judge the world? Someone might argue, “If my falsehood
enhances God’s truthfulness and so increases his glory, why am
I still condemned as a sinner?” Why not say—as we are
being slanderously reported as saying and as some claim that we
say—“Let us do evil that good may result”? Their
condemnation is deserved. (Romans 3:1-8 NIV)
Paul continues his argument from chapter 2, that the essence of being a Jew is a circumcised heart (v. 29), leading to keeping God's moral and ethical commands (v. 25), not just the outward signs of circumcision and observation of the dietary laws (kasher). But if gentiles can do this as well as Jews and without need for the outward signs of Jewish life (v. 26), what if anything was the advantage of being a physical Jew in Old Testament times and in Paul's day?
Here Paul speaks as a gentile might, who drew a false conclusion
based upon his argument in ch. 2 that put the Jew and gentile on the
same footing before God as lawbreakers. If Jews and gentiles are
equally sinners in God's sight, then there appears to be no advantage
at all to being a Jew!
The questioner wonders why God ever bothered to free Israel from
Egyptian bondage or give the law through Moses on Mt. Sinai. If all
this could produce was a slightly different route to guilt before
God, why do it?
The imaginary speaker may also have a second question in mind:
whether it is worth all the effort to be a practicing Jew—in
Paul's case a Jewish believer in the messiah— instead of a
free-thinking, free-living gentile pagan. For as a Jew he realizes
that Jewish life is not all privilege: there is effort required to be
a faithful Jew. The pagan Romans must often have asked themselves
“Why would anyone go to all that trouble and become such
odd-balls in society?” Anti-Semitism was rife in Roman society,
and is especially prominent in the writings of the elite. Jews were
looked down on and not only viewed as a curiosity, but suspected of
all sorts of foul play, since their social life was largely concealed
from the non-Jews of the city. Jews had to work hard—just as
Christians did later on—to gain the right to live according to
the laws of God, even if they could never become fully acceptable in
Roman society.
Paul’s answering words “much in every way” (v.
1) will be elaborated later in ch. 9. Here he needs to refer to
only one principal privilege: the Jews were made custodians of
(“entrusted with”) God’s written word (τὰ
λόγια τοῦ θεοῦ
“the oracles of God”).
Let's first try to understand what Paul's answer is for the
first way of understanding the question. Of what value to
God's plan and to the gentile world was the election of Israel
and the giving of the law to them? It was not God's will to
have angels from the sky proclaim his will and his nature to all
nations. Instead, he wanted his righteous nature and his will to be
embodied in full view of their neighbors. For this he needed earthly
custodians of this revelation, even at the risk of having them
prove disobedient and have to receive chastisement from time to time.
These words of God were entrusted to Israel. They were not to be hoarded, but used for the benefit of all peoples of Earth. Even before the rise of the Jesus-believers, Jewish authors indicated their consciousness of this fact: they were God’s means of saving the gentiles. In a similar way, Paul and the other apostles were entrusted with the gospel (1Cor 9:17; Gal 2:7; 1Th 2:4). The Jews were stewards of the OT scriptures, as Paul (ὑπηρέτης, οἰκονόμος) was of the gospel of Christ (1 Cor. 4:1-2). They even made up edifying stories of biblical characters bringing pagans to faith, such as the colorful tale of Joseph and his Egyptian wife Asenath, found in the Jewish intertestamental writings.
These words of God were entrusted to Israel. They were not to be hoarded, but used for the benefit of all peoples of Earth. Even before the rise of the Jesus-believers, Jewish authors indicated their consciousness of this fact: they were God’s means of saving the gentiles. In a similar way, Paul and the other apostles were entrusted with the gospel (1Cor 9:17; Gal 2:7; 1Th 2:4). The Jews were stewards of the OT scriptures, as Paul (ὑπηρέτης, οἰκονόμος) was of the gospel of Christ (1 Cor. 4:1-2). They even made up edifying stories of biblical characters bringing pagans to faith, such as the colorful tale of Joseph and his Egyptian wife Asenath, found in the Jewish intertestamental writings.
But what about the second question? Of what value to the
Israelites themselves was this scenario? Having the scriptures
as a guide to life allowed Jews in Old Testament times to know what
pleased and displeased God much more accurately than the “law
of the conscience” which was all that the gentiles had to guide
themselves. And obeying God, even if one could not do it perfectly,
brought satisfaction to Jewish souls as well as the possibility of
fellowship with God in prayer and worship. Just read the Psalms and see for yourself what joy they had in worshiping and learning from God! There is a Jewish festival today known as Simḥat Tôrah "the joy of Bible Study".
Even though in the centuries before Jesus, Jews understood that they
couldn't obey God's laws perfectly, that they could not be "sinless,"
they aimed for a high standard short of sinlessness, which they
called "blamelessness." Psalm 119:1 reads:
Blissfully happy are
those who are blameless (Hebrew tamîm) in conduct, who live according to the law of the Lord.
In Paul's day the advantage of having full access to the word of God
in the scriptures also belonged to Jews who were believers in Jesus.
We have to realize that for the Church in Paul's day the scriptures
consisted entirely of what we call the "Old Testament," and
even if it was read aloud in Christian meetings in Greek, not Hebrew,
the conceptual "language" behind the Greek was still
Hebraic, that is to say, "Jewish." Concepts like sin,
transgression, repentance, atonement, forgiveness, and holiness, were
very un-Greek and un-Roman. New believers in those days needed a
thorough training in Old Testament and Jewish customs and thought
patterns in order to follow the readings from (Old Testament)
scripture given in worship services. Jewish believers in Jesus had a
decided advantage when it came to understanding God's written word,
which they could use to help their gentile brothers and sisters in
Christ.
Of course, one needs also to balance this advantage with the greater
responsibility that accompanied greater knowledge. As Jesus' brother
James put it in his general epistle: “Not many of you should
presume to be teachers [of scripture], my brothers, because you know
that we who teach will be judged more strictly” (James 2:26-3:1
NIV). God holds people accountable for how much they know of his
will. Does
this discourage us from knowing more of scripture? No. But it warns
us that God expects us to live up to the knowledge we have, which
others do not yet have.
But Paul does not linger to elaborate on this advantage. Quickly, he
moves on in verses 3-8 to another question: What effect
does Israel's failure to recognize Jesus as their messiah have on
God's faithfulness?
Beginning with v. 3, Paul rejects a false belief that God's
faithfulness to his promises can be nullified by Israel's
unfaithfulness. He will address this matter again in much greater
detail in chs. 9-11.
By "entrusting" (Greek πιστεύω
pisteuō, the same verb used for putting faith in Jesus) his words to Israel, God as it were put his
faith in Israel as custodians. Some Israelites proved unworthy of this trust by
disobeying the very scriptures given to them. We know this from the
historical and prophetic books of the Old Testament, as well as from
archeological artifacts that show idolatry practiced in Israel itself
during the monarchy. But God's initial "faithfulness"—his
commitment to them, his "faith" in them—continued
uncompromised by the failure of some of them. God's commitment is
like that which he commanded Hosea
the prophet to show: Hosea married a woman destined to become an
unfaithful wife and a prostitute (Hosea 1); yet God commanded him to
go and fetch her from her prostitution and make her his wife again
(Hosea 3).
In all periods of Israel’s history, beginning in Egypt under
Moses, there was always a part of Israel that was “unfaithful,”
just as in its darkest hours under King Ahab there was always a part
that remained “faithful.” In Old Testament times, the unfaithfulness
of Israel took the form of idolatry and a failure to obey God's law.
Idolatry technically was grounds for the rejection of the nation,
since the ten commandments were the basis of God's covenant with
Israel at Sinai. Yet through all this time, God remained "faithful."
He would not reject the nation he had chosen. And although he
eventually sent them into exile in Babylonia, they were still his
people, and he brought them back under Zerubbabel, Nehemiah and Ezra.
As Paul explains in ch. 11, the gifts and election of God are
irrevocable (Rom. 11:29).
Paul is careful to say (v. 3): “What if some (Greek τινες)
(Jews) have been unfaithful (that is, have not believed in Jesus),”
for he is well aware that the initial Christian movement in its
entirety, those who began it all and continued to be its
foundation and bedrock—the apostles and prophets, were all
Jews. All but one of the New Testament writers were Jews.
The believers in Rome, both Jew and gentile, were well aware that the
majority of Jews in the city seemed permanently resistant to the
gospel. God had made a covenant with Israel. But in contracts and
international treaties, if one party violated the terms of the
agreement, the other party was absolved from all its responsibility.
Was this also true with God’s covenant with Israel? Was he now
free to become “unfaithful”?
Throughout Israel's previous history her disobedience and unbelief brought temporary punishment, but repentance and restoration were always available. Israel is God’s “prodigal son,” and like the father in that story God is always at the roadside looking for him to return. So far, the faith in Jesus as the messiah has been limited to a small stream of Jews. But in Romans 11 Paul says that in the end the spiritual blindness that has characterized Israel during the present age will be lifted. The repentance will be nationwide. As Paul says in ch. 11:
“Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious. But if their failure to believe now means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their fullness bring!” (Romans 11:11-12)
But Paul hastens to add (v. 4) that, even if not just part of
Israel, but every human being, rejected God’s truth in
favor of Satan’s lie, God himself would always remain the
Truth, the standard by which all falsehood is judged.
In verses 5, 7-8 Paul brings up several specious arguments
that conceivably could be brought by mischief-makers who wish only to
confuse clear-thinking believers. “If good results from evil,
how can a good God punish that evil?” This, Paul’s
readers know as well as he, is mere sophistry, not serious thinking
about God and about good and evil. That is why Paul adds in v. 5 "I
speak in a human way." He gives his answer in v. 6: If your
premise were to be accepted, God could not judge anyone, since
the ultimate good, namely the ultimate Kingdom of God, will come in
spite of all the evil in the world.
A prime example of good coming from evil is found in OT history. Joseph's being sold as a slave into Egypt by his brothers was a terrible evil. Yet through that act, God gave Joseph favor with the pharaoh and raised him to power in Egypt enabling him both to save pagan Egyptians and his own family (the nucleus of the future nation of Israel) from dying of famine. Yet although good resulted from an evil act, this did not prevent God from judging the brothers' sin. God would have been just in judging the evil of Joseph's brothers, but they came to Joseph in sincere repentance and were forgiven by his grace. Only two things deterred Joseph's (and God's) righteous judgment: the brothers' repentance and Joseph's and God's grace. These two concepts—repentance and grace—are also key to Paul's gospel as it applies to the Jewish question.
A prime example of good coming from evil is found in OT history. Joseph's being sold as a slave into Egypt by his brothers was a terrible evil. Yet through that act, God gave Joseph favor with the pharaoh and raised him to power in Egypt enabling him both to save pagan Egyptians and his own family (the nucleus of the future nation of Israel) from dying of famine. Yet although good resulted from an evil act, this did not prevent God from judging the brothers' sin. God would have been just in judging the evil of Joseph's brothers, but they came to Joseph in sincere repentance and were forgiven by his grace. Only two things deterred Joseph's (and God's) righteous judgment: the brothers' repentance and Joseph's and God's grace. These two concepts—repentance and grace—are also key to Paul's gospel as it applies to the Jewish question.
In the next section (v. 9-20) Paul speaks as a Jewish non-believer
for half of one verse (9a). But beginning with the words "No,
not at all" he returns to being Paul and answers his
interlocutor.
9 What then? Are we
Jews any better off? — [Paul:] No, not at all. For we have
already charged that all, both Jews and Greeks, are under sin, 10
as it is written: “None is righteous, no, not one; 11no
one understands; no one seeks for God. 12 All have turned
aside; together they have become worthless; no one does good, not
even one.” 13 “Their throat is an open grave;
they use their tongues to deceive.” “The venom of asps is
under their lips.” 14 “Their mouth is full of
curses and bitterness.” 15 “Their feet are
swift to shed blood; 16 in their paths are ruin and
misery, 17 and the way of peace they have not known.”
18 “There is no fear of God before their eyes.”
19 Now we know that whatever the law says it speaks to
those who are under the law, so that every mouth may be stopped, and
the whole world may be held accountable to God. 20 For by
works of the law no human being will be justified in his sight, since
through the law comes knowledge of sin. (Romans 3:9-20 ESV)
The hypothetical questioner built his new question on Paul's
affirmation of Jewish advantage in being custodians of God's word.
But in reply to the question: "Does this make us (Jews) better
off (in terms of building a perfect record of good deeds)?"
Paul's answer is that, despite the advantage possessed by Israel of
having God's word, the scriptures, Jews are no better off in
regard to earning salvation. He repeats the verdict of chs. 1-2,
namely, that all people (Jews and non-Jews) apart from Christ stand
under the judgment of God because of their failure to live lives of
perfect obedience to God's laws. They are "under the power of
sin."
To prove that Jews too, with all the advantages of possessing God's
word, were as universally guilty of sin as the pagan gentiles, Paul
appeals to statements made in the Old Testament scriptures (Rom.
3:10-18). In presenting the way of salvation to our non-Jewish
friends, we often quote these OT verses which Paul cited here, but in
their original contexts these verses (Psa
5:9; 10:7; 14:1-3; 53:1-3; 140:3; Prov 1:16; Isa 59:7-8)
refer not to pagan gentiles, but to wicked Jews.
As if to make sure that his hearers realized that the cited verses
were not just describing non-Jews, Paul adds in v. 19: Now we know
that whatever the law says it speaks to those who are under the
law, so that every mouth may be stopped, and the whole world may
be held accountable to God. Since it was the Jews who were "under
the law," the passages from the "law" (Old Testament)
quoted have to be addressed to them. And thus, added to the gentiles,
"the whole world" has become accountable to God.
In v. 20 Paul anticipates an imaginary rebuttal: that although the
“law” (i.e., the Old Testament scriptures just quoted)
declares all sinners are guilty before God, that same law provides
God’s remedy for sin in the sacrificial system and in the
requirement of repentance. This seems to have been the view held by
many if not most Jews in Paul's day, and it would have been known
even to gentile Christians who had any contact at all with the
synagogues.
This ancient Jewish basis for confidence in God's forgiving their sins has been given classic formulation by E. P. Sanders under the name "covenantal nomism." Such Jews did not believe they could enter the kingdom of God on the basis of their good deeds, but by being members of the covenant community and utilizing the means of obtaining forgiveness: (namely) repentance, confession of sin, and making the sacrifices prescribed in the law of Moses. They relied upon the grace of God and his provision for their forgiveness. They strived to keep the commandments, not in order to earn salvation, but in order to live out their status as saved members of the covenant community and thus "stay in" the community of the saved. Sanders concluded that the old view of the Protestant Reformers, that Jews in Paul's day relied on their good deeds to secure a blessed afterlife, was a serious misreading of the views of Jews in the days of Jesus and Paul.
This, of course, raised the question: What then does Paul mean when in his letters he criticizes the Jews who do not believe in Jesus for seeking salvation by "the works of the law"? Was Paul himself misled? Or did he deliberately misread the beliefs of his opponents? Most scholars—and certainly all evangelical ones—would reject either of these two answers. But building on Sanders' insights, the British New Testament scholar James Dunn has innovated what is called "the new perspective on Paul", according to which the "works of the law" that Paul rejected as having any role in salvation were not the ethical commandments (such as the Ten Commandments: do not lie, kill, steal, commit adultery), but circumcision and the dietary laws, what Dunn calls the "Jewish boundary markers," the visible signs that one belonged to the chosen people of God.
But in my opinion it is more likely that the expression "works of the law," as Paul uses it, was not restricted to these "boundary markers," but certainly included also the ethical commandments of the law. And insofar as it may have focused upon the Jewish boundary markers, this also entailed the entire sacrificial system.
Some scholars who buy both Sanders' and Dunn's ideas seem to believe that Paul's chief objection to covenantal nomism was that it was inappropriate for his gentile converts. But Paul's (and God's) argument is that it is inappropriate for Jews as well!
This ancient Jewish basis for confidence in God's forgiving their sins has been given classic formulation by E. P. Sanders under the name "covenantal nomism." Such Jews did not believe they could enter the kingdom of God on the basis of their good deeds, but by being members of the covenant community and utilizing the means of obtaining forgiveness: (namely) repentance, confession of sin, and making the sacrifices prescribed in the law of Moses. They relied upon the grace of God and his provision for their forgiveness. They strived to keep the commandments, not in order to earn salvation, but in order to live out their status as saved members of the covenant community and thus "stay in" the community of the saved. Sanders concluded that the old view of the Protestant Reformers, that Jews in Paul's day relied on their good deeds to secure a blessed afterlife, was a serious misreading of the views of Jews in the days of Jesus and Paul.
This, of course, raised the question: What then does Paul mean when in his letters he criticizes the Jews who do not believe in Jesus for seeking salvation by "the works of the law"? Was Paul himself misled? Or did he deliberately misread the beliefs of his opponents? Most scholars—and certainly all evangelical ones—would reject either of these two answers. But building on Sanders' insights, the British New Testament scholar James Dunn has innovated what is called "the new perspective on Paul", according to which the "works of the law" that Paul rejected as having any role in salvation were not the ethical commandments (such as the Ten Commandments: do not lie, kill, steal, commit adultery), but circumcision and the dietary laws, what Dunn calls the "Jewish boundary markers," the visible signs that one belonged to the chosen people of God.
But in my opinion it is more likely that the expression "works of the law," as Paul uses it, was not restricted to these "boundary markers," but certainly included also the ethical commandments of the law. And insofar as it may have focused upon the Jewish boundary markers, this also entailed the entire sacrificial system.
Some scholars who buy both Sanders' and Dunn's ideas seem to believe that Paul's chief objection to covenantal nomism was that it was inappropriate for his gentile converts. But Paul's (and God's) argument is that it is inappropriate for Jews as well!
If indeed covenantal nomism was the view of Paul's non-believing fellow Jews,
his reply to them here in Romans is that the law of Moses belongs to the
pre-messianic age. And it can never make sinning people right with God,
but only demonstrate to them that they are "accountable"
(that is, "guilty" ὑπόδικος)
and liable to God's judgment. Paul argues that the very “works
of the law” that they depend upon, including the sacrificial
system itself, condemn them, since ironically recourse to that system
required that a person first confess his particular sin and guilt (Lev 5:5-6; Num 5:7), and only afterwards make his sacrifice. These sacrifices,
like the law as a whole, belong to the pre-messianic era. As Paul had
written earlier to the Galatian churches,
“Before this faith came, we were held prisoners by the law, locked up until faith should be revealed. So the law was put in charge to lead us to Christ that we might be justified by faith. Now that faith has come, we are no longer under the supervision of the law.” (Galatians 3:23-25 NIV)
The NIV's paraphrase "was put in charge" renders what is literally "was our tutor (or guardian)". This supervision or guardianship role of the law extended beyond
merely its ethical commands. It included the sacrificial system,
which also was preparatory, finding its perfect fulfillment in Jesus'
death and resurrection. The sacrifices in the tabernacle and in the
Jerusalem temple had never been able take away sin, but were merely
an anticipation of the messiah's future sacrificial death which would
be the true work of atonement. Now that the messiah had come and
fulfilled what the Old Testament sacrifices only foreshadowed, anyone
who claimed them as a means of escaping God’s judgment on his
sins was merely admitting both his guilt and his lack of a remedy
outside of the messiah. As the writer to the Hebrews put it so
clearly:
“The law is only a shadow of the good things that were to come—not the realities themselves. For this reason it can never, by the same sacrifices repeated endlessly year after year, make perfect those who draw near to worship. If it could, would they not have stopped being offered? For the worshipers would have been cleansed once for all, and would no longer have felt guilty for their sins. But those sacrifices are an annual reminder of sins, because it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins.” (Hebrews 10:1-4 NIV adapted)
While the attitude that Sanders and Dunn call "covenantal
nomism" might have secured forgiveness for pious Jews prior
to the advent of the messiah, it was completely inadequate and
powerless afterwards.
3:21-31 God's righteousness
Rom. 3:21 “But
now a righteousness from God, apart from law, has been made known, to
which the Law and the Prophets testify. 22 This righteousness
from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe.
There is no difference, 23 for all have sinned and fall short
of the glory of God, 24 and are justified freely by his grace
through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. 25 God
presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his
blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his
forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished—
26 he did it to demonstrate his justice at the present time,
so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith
in Jesus. 27 Where, then, is boasting? It is excluded. On what
principle? On that of observing the law? No, but on that of faith.
28 For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from
observing the law. 29 Is God the God of Jews only? Is he not
the God of Gentiles too? Yes, of Gentiles too, 30 since there
is only one God, who will justify the circumcised by faith and the
uncircumcised through that same faith. 31 Do we, then,
nullify the law by this faith? Not at all! Rather, we uphold the law.
The various modern English Bible translations differ in vv. 21 and 22
as to whether they add the word "the" or not before
"righteousness" and "law". Is the righteousness
God's own rectitude or a right standing that he gives? Is this apart
from "the law" of Moses, or apart from "a
law," i.e., any code of morality? These differences are
significant, and yet the Greek text cannot tell us which is meant.
I prefer the NIV's combination, which you have heard read: "But
now a righteousness from God, apart from law, has been made
known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify." The
reading “a righteousness of God” means not God’s
own righteousness which is one of his attributes, but a right
standing with God which he can give to believers. “Apart from
law” means that this righteousness is achieved apart from
keeping any moral code, not just the law of Moses. While
none of these three renderings results in heresy, I would say that
the NIV’s combination is closest to what we know elsewhere to
be Paul’s view of justification.
In v. 21 Paul writes that it is only "now"—with the
death and resurrection of Jesus the messiah—that this
righteousness has been disclosed, but according to Paul's
understanding of two OT passages which he will be quoting soon, the
idea of persons being counted right with God (that is, “righteous”)
on the basis of their faith is implied in Israel's scriptures, even
if it was not understood until now.
In v. 22, all the modern translations say—in various
paraphrases—that righteousness from God comes “through
faith in Jesus Christ to/for all who believe”. And here we must
be careful. For here the Greek actually has the definite
article and a genitive meaning "of": “through the
faith of Jesus Christ”, not “in Jesus
Christ.”
What could Paul have meant by “through the faith of
Jesus Christ”? You remember from our discussion of ch. 1 that
the word for “faith” in biblical Greek (πίστις)
can also mean “faithfulness.” And many interpreters argue
here that it was the faithful obedience of Jesus that Paul
means here. It was through Jesus’ faithful obedience unto death
that God’s righteousness can now come to all who believe.
Paul’s use of the word “all” in v. 22 ("all
who believe") refers to both Jews and gentiles who believe in
Jesus. That is why he immediately adds (v. 22) “for
there is no distinction”: God gave the Jews an advantage by
making them custodians of his written revelation, but they are
equally sinners in the eyes of God; and with regard to the
requirements for receiving his gift of righteousness they must come
the same way that we gentiles do—by faith alone, without making
any claim based upon Israel's law.
“All (i.e., both classes) have sinned”
(v. 23), and “all (i.e., both classes) are given right
standing with God freely by God’s grace through the redeeming
sacrifice of Jesus (v. 24).
Both Jews and gentiles need the same “justification”
(right standing) and the same “redemption”. Both require
God to be gracious, that is, to show his mercy to the
undeserving. This and other passages in Paul refute the idea that, if
God's election of Israel still exists, it must mean that there are
two routes: one for Israel through the law and without belief
in Jesus as the messiah, and one for gentiles through belief in
Jesus.
The two different prepositions used in v. 30 "by faith"
for Israel and "through faith" for the gentiles
merely reflect different modes of acquiring faith. Israel already had the spiritual preparation provided by the centuries of God's revelation in the Old Testament, enabling them to only add the recognition of Jesus as their promised messiah and come "by" the faith already promised to them. On the other hand, the pagan gentiles had no such preparation— they come to God "through" the faith prepared for Israel. This distinction, which Paul tries to express by varying his prepositions, is not intended to give Israel a special route to God that is a detour
around the messiah Jesus. There are not two routes to
God, but historically there were two on-ramps (v. 30) to the
single route: one for those with the advantage of better prior
information about God
and those without. It may help you to think of the analogous situation today of two persons, one of whom grew up in a loving and Bible-knowledgeable family, and the other in an atheistic one. Persons in the former position can certainly choose not to follow in their family's path, but they have a better chance of knowing the relevant truths and seeing their outworking in their parents and siblings.
In v. 25 Paul proceeds to explain what he means by “the
redemption (ἀπολύτρωσις apolutrōsis)
that came by Christ Jesus” (v. 24). The redemption was
accomplished by Jesus’ sacrificial death, which is expressed
here by the word for “atoning sacrifice” (ἱλαστήριον hilastērion) and by the
phrase “in his blood.” God has “presented”
(NIV) or “put forward” (NRSV, ESV) Jesus as this
atoning sacrifice (hilastērion), but it must be received “by faith”, or, as the
NRSV puts it so nicely “effective through faith”.
What
does Paul mean by “put forward” or “presented”?
The last part of the verse explains that: Jesus’ death for us
not only accomplished our salvation, it also vindicated God
for crediting righteousness long before Jesus’ death to those Old Testament saints who believed. Their sins were not expiated by animal
sacrifices, but God “passed over” them in view of what he
knew his Son would accomplish. Old Testament saints like Moses, David, and Elijah had their sins forgiven, as it were, on credit. When the proper time arrived, God "presented" Jesus as the atoning sacrifice that made good all that "credit" extended in Old Testament times. God didn't need a congressional bail-out! He paid the debt with the blood of the Lord Jesus.
In v. 26 Paul unites the two notions inherent in the phrase “the
righteousness of God”: by doing all this, God was able to prove
the rightness or justice of his behavior and at the same time give
right standing (“justify”) the one who is "(the
beneficiary) of the faithfulness of Jesus” (τὸν
ἐκ πίστεως
Ἰησοῦ). Once again Paul uses πίστις
pistis as to denote the faithfulness of Jesus as our obedient
Dying and Rising Savior.
Paul closes this section of his presentation in vv. 27-31 with a
triumphant conclusion. God is able to solve all the problems by this
plan. In the process he also eliminates any grounds for human
boasting, bypassing law-keeping and substituting the principle of
faith. By operating on this principle God is able to use two
different historical operations—two "on-ramps" (the
election of Israel and the election of gentile believers) to
accomplish the salvation of those who believe. He is not only the God
of the Jews, nor is he only the God of the gentiles. He is the God of
both. When Paul writes in v. 30 "he (i.e., God) is one,"
he alludes to the Jewish creedal statement, the Shema Yisrael,
that was recited daily by observant Jews. "Hear, O Israel! The
Lord is our God. The Lord is One." Therefore God is at liberty
to unite the two groups on the basis of faith in his Son. In a real
sense, gentile knowledge of God is always mediated through Jewish
knowledge of God. As the Christian bumper sticker puts it, "My
boss is a Jewish carpenter."
And finally, in v. 31, the big question: does this role of faith in
the saving of both Jew and gentile now "invalidate/abrogate"
(katargoumen) the law? No. By showing that the law's proper
role was always to guide in behavior and alert to sin, we give to the
law its proper role. This verse properly leads into the next
chapter, since Paul now must find an example in the "law",
i.e., the Pentateuch, to rebut the charge that salvation by faith
left no purpose for the law.
Normally, we evangelicals read these verses as a defense of the
teaching of justification by faith. But when we understand that Paul
also anticipates much hostility to Jewish things among the gentile
believers in Rome, we see this in a different light. Paul doesn't
want Jewish believers in Rome to try to force gentile ones to keep
the law of Moses in order to be saved. But he also doesn't want the
majority gentile believers to belittle Israel's scriptures or to fail
to see how vital Israel's law was and is in its proper role of
showing human sinfulness and making necessary both the messiah's
atoning sacrifice and God's free gift of right standing to believers.
When we come to chapter 12, we will see how Paul addresses the
question of whether or not the law of Moses has a role in guiding a
believer's moral life.
Our study of chapter 12 is still another few months away. But you don't have to wait for the class
to read the chapter! And I hope I have made you a little curious. After all,
we all want to be not just hearers of the Word, but doers!
No comments:
Post a Comment